Isaiah 53:10 tells us of this one that was put to death (vs9} will see his seed, which is in future tense form (naphsho yireh zerah) It appears that many times His Messianic prophecies are written in past tense, speaking to those in the future, as in today, who will look at it as something ... More on hermeneutics.stackexchange.com

Based on my reading of the Wikipedia article, Book of Isaiah , ... Some people think that Isaiah 53 was written by the prophet Isaiah himself and date it to about 700 BC or about 730 years before Jesus was crucified. Others think that Isaiah 53 was written by an anonymous writer whom they refer to as Deutero-Isaiah and date it to about 540 BC or about 570 years before Jesus was crucified. What we know for sure is that the oldest extant copy of Isaiah that we have, one of the Dead Sea Scrolls, dates from about 150 BC to 200 BC or from about 180 to 230 years before Jesus was crucified. Thus, Isaiah 53 might have been written as much as about 730 years before Jesus was crucified or as little as about 180 years before Jesus was crucified, but probably about 570 years before Jesus was crucified. More on reddit.com

Isaiah 53 is part of the Servant Song cycle in Deutero-Isaiah (ch. 40-55). Deutero-Isaiah was written in the late exilic and early post-exilic period. The first portion was probably written c. 540 BC, i.e. shortly before Cyrus conquered Babylon (as the text draws on the Cyrus Proclamation yet does not reflect what happened when Babylon fell). The Servant Songs may have been written a decade or two later. Trito-Isaiah (ch. 56-66) dates even later, to the fifth century BC. The servant is usually understood as representing Israel, although the fourth song seem to pertain either to an individualized personification of Israel or an actual individual (speculative suggestions have included Zerubabbel, Haggai, Zechariah, or someone unknown to history). More on reddit.com

If you read all of Psalm 22, it's not actually a prophecy about the messiah or about crucifixion, but it's a lament poem about someone who is afflicted by trouble and then vindicated by God. Verse 16 is often mistranslated with the word "pierce" to make it fit a christological context better. (The exact meaning of verse 16 is not known, which is a long-standing problem in biblical studies.) However, the author of Mark made clever use of the images and symbolism in Psalm 22 in his passion story, and of course Jesus is shown to quote a line from it in Aramaic on the cross. The date of authorship of the Psalm is not known. The last portion is generally thought to have been composed later. The oldest surviving manuscript is from the Dead Sea Scrolls. I can't find an exact date, but maybe around 100 BCE. John Day summarizes it in his commentary on Psalms: Psalm 22, an individual lament, is echoed primarily in the gospel passion narratives. Jesus' cry from the cross, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani, 'My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?', cites Ps. 22.1 in Aramaic: it may well be that these words, which have often been found puzzling,have the wider context of the psalm in mind, which ends on a note of vindication and of the universal coming of the kingdom of God (Ps. 22,22-31). Other echoes of this psalm are the deriding of Jesus and the wagging of heads at him (Mk 15.29; Mt. 27.39; Lk. 23.35; cf. Ps. 22.7), the division of Jesus' garments and casting lots for them (Mk 15.24; Mt. 27.35; Lk. 23.34; Jn 19.24; cf. Ps. 22.18) and the demand that God deliver him (Mt. 27.43; cf. Ps. 22.8). One can obviously debate how far these allusions reflect historical episodes and how far they simply represent the reading of these psalm passages into the passion narrative. More on reddit.com