In the temptation story, Jesus is quoting a scripture passage, introduced by the words "It is written." The focus at that point is Jesus acknowledging the truth and authority of God's word. He is saying in effect, God has spoken and I must submit to that word.

In the Sermon on the Mount, the focus is different. Jesus here is a rabbi teaching his disciples (Matthew 5.2), and the contrast in chapter 5 is between his teaching and the teaching of other Jewish authorities, such as the Pharisees or other rabbis. So when Jesus says "You have heard that it was said", this is not a reference to the OT scripture at all. It's a reference to interpretations of the scriptures.

For example, what does it mean that "You shall not murder"? Jesus' answer in Matthew 5.21-22 is that other teachers have limited the scope of the commandment to the physical act of killing someone. But Jesus' teaching is that the command is broken if and when I get angry with someone. This is presumably because the inward attitude is what leads to the outward action. The focus on the inner heart and spirit is a regular theme of Jesus' teaching.

This distinction between OT command and Jewish interpretations of that command is especially clear in Matthew 5.43-44. Here Jesus quotes teachers who say "Love your neighbour and hate your enemy." In fact this is not a command found in the OT. The only command that is found is to "love your neighbour", so "hate your enemy" is an addition from the earlier Jewish teachers. But in Jesus' view to hate your enemy is to contradict the meaning of the command. For Jesus my "neighbour" is anyone I come in contact with and to whom I can show love. The classic picture of this is the parable of the Good Samaritan.

Answer from Peter Kirkpatrick on Stack Exchange
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Knowable Word
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Context Matters: You Have Heard That it was Said...But I Say to You
July 28, 2018 - Yes, the OT speaks about “an eye for an eye” in a number of places. But when Jesus quotes the OT, he says “it is written” not “you have heard.” And his last quote (“and hate your enemies”) is not in the OT at all.
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Quora
quora.com › In-the-Bible-what-is-the-meaning-and-difference-of-is-written-and-you-have-heard-it-said-Can-you-provide-examples
In the Bible, what is the meaning and difference of 'is written', and 'you have heard it said'? Can you provide examples? - Quora
Answer (1 of 9): "it is written", "we have heard", "I have heard", and "you have heard it is said" is an informal citation that is used in the new testament that might correspond to the portions of the old testament of the bibliography. These phrases were mostly uttered by Jesus Christ to bolster...
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Examining Matthew 5:43 "you have heard" - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange
If the phrase "you have heard" refers to the Scriptures, why is hating one's enemy not written in the Old Testament. Matthew 5:43 ASV Ye have heard that it was said, Thou shalt love thy More on hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
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August 14, 2022
Does anyone know about isogloss of the "it is written" vs "it says" for describing text?
I have noted in several stories I have read bilingually where when the English has X says Y and the translation is often Y is written in X English / Polish (Specifically: the Sum of All Fears by Tom Clancy). English / Turkish (Hitchhikers' Guide to the Galaxy by Douglas Adams) English + Japanese (practically everywhere, except in one anime, Japanese dub with English subtitles where somebody actually said something like 聖書は…言う (The Bible says...) to my surprise. More on reddit.com
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February 6, 2023
How are Jesus' statements in Matthew 5:18-19 not contrary to Paul's teachings and mainstream Christianity.
It's clear that Jesus didn't consider all of the Old Testament law to be "God's Law." (He even makes the distinction when criticizing Pharisees for conflating human traditions with God's Law). Jesus overturned a lot of letters and strokes (and jots and tiddles and iotas) of Old Testament law. Picking grain on the sabbath, not following strict hand-washing rituals, declaring all foods clean, intervening in a legally-sanctioned adulteress stoning, healing on the sabbath, deriding "an eye for an eye," overriding traditional divorce/remarriage/etc. laws, etc. What, then, did Jesus consider to be the Law? Can we just pick and choose? I think Jesus defines it pretty clearly, in fact. Whenever he says "all the Law and the Prophets" he seems to be clearly and specifically referring to the 10 Commandments. This is clear in his answer to "which is the greatest commandment," in which he basically summarizes the 10 Commandments in 2 sentences and then says that this sums up "all the Law and the Prophets." Also, when the rich young man asks what he needs to do to earn eternal life, Jesus lists the Commandments. He doesn't add "also, circumcise your offspring, attach a mezuzah to your door, don't get any tattoos, don't you dare wear wool and linen together, and make sure you stone some gay people to death." (Note that he does then add that it would take the rich man additional steps--selling all of his possessions for the poor--if he wanted to join Jesus' party). Considering that Jesus' definition of "all the Law and the Prophets" seems to be "The 10 Commandments," I think that is a pretty safe definition for Christians to follow. So when Jesus says "not the smallest letter shall pass from the Law," he's referring to the Commandments (God's Law), and not to every jot and tiddle of Old Testament law (largely human traditions). More on reddit.com
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April 20, 2019
Matthew 5:43-48 “You have heard that it was said, ‘Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’
I'm not kidding - just ten minutes ago I was showering and thinking about this passage from Matthew 5 and was thinking about posting it on here. You beat me to it. It was weighing on me that I was feeling angry towards someone and I DEFINITELY was not praying for them. Loving them the way God does was difficult given what I knew about things they had done and their arrogant attitude about it all. Sometimes Scripture tells us things will be hard but it never really sinks in how hard it will be until we're in the situation. More on reddit.com
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September 22, 2025
Top answer
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In the temptation story, Jesus is quoting a scripture passage, introduced by the words "It is written." The focus at that point is Jesus acknowledging the truth and authority of God's word. He is saying in effect, God has spoken and I must submit to that word.

In the Sermon on the Mount, the focus is different. Jesus here is a rabbi teaching his disciples (Matthew 5.2), and the contrast in chapter 5 is between his teaching and the teaching of other Jewish authorities, such as the Pharisees or other rabbis. So when Jesus says "You have heard that it was said", this is not a reference to the OT scripture at all. It's a reference to interpretations of the scriptures.

For example, what does it mean that "You shall not murder"? Jesus' answer in Matthew 5.21-22 is that other teachers have limited the scope of the commandment to the physical act of killing someone. But Jesus' teaching is that the command is broken if and when I get angry with someone. This is presumably because the inward attitude is what leads to the outward action. The focus on the inner heart and spirit is a regular theme of Jesus' teaching.

This distinction between OT command and Jewish interpretations of that command is especially clear in Matthew 5.43-44. Here Jesus quotes teachers who say "Love your neighbour and hate your enemy." In fact this is not a command found in the OT. The only command that is found is to "love your neighbour", so "hate your enemy" is an addition from the earlier Jewish teachers. But in Jesus' view to hate your enemy is to contradict the meaning of the command. For Jesus my "neighbour" is anyone I come in contact with and to whom I can show love. The classic picture of this is the parable of the Good Samaritan.

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There is not any meaningful or any significant difference for in both cases the same reality of God's word is referred to. The Holy Scripture was customarily read aloud in synagogues, thus "you have heard" is matching to "it is written".

Thus, Jesus does not refer to Pharisees, Sadducees, or any Jewish theologians' interpretations of the Holy Scriptures when saying "you have heard", but to the Scriptures themselves. The crucial point here is another thing: Jews noticed that Jesus, in difference from Scribes and Pharisees spoke "as a one having authority" (Matthew 7:29). But what does it mean to "have authority"? Why it was so drastically different from the Scribes and Pharisees? Did He speak with a louder voice or with more sparkling eyes displaying a greater inspiration? Not, of course! The reference is not to how rhetorically impressively He spoke but the contents of His speech, the "what" of His speech.

Now, this contents is that He did not take a passage, a quote from Holy Scripture and then interpret it like the Scribes and Pharisees, but changing at will the very passage! Saying that henceforth not the previous passage should be quoted by theologians, but His novel words! That is to say, He substitutes the Scriptural passage with His words, giving a new Scripture. Exactly that is the essence of His scandal, that is the essence of people's bewilderment that "He is speaking as one who has authority to change the very Scripture and establish the new Scripture"! It is the same as when He authoritatively says: "I give you a New Testament" (Matthew 26:28), thus saying that He is either equal to or identical with the one who gave the Old Testament - God. For, in fact, only the one who has the equal and the same authority as God can change at will the words of God.

To give an analogy: if a Roman Emperor legislates: "Roman citizenship should be given only to the inhabitants of Latium and not to anybody else". Then, with changed circumstances in the world, when another Roman Emperor sees that now it will be profitable both for Empire's well-being to give citizenship to others as well, he overrules at will the previous legislation with a new one: "Roman citizenship should be given to all, who will provide a worthy service to it regardless nationality". But only Emperor can overrule an edict of an Emperor. Anybody else, who would do so, would be a criminal. The same here: unless Jesus is God, then overruling the word of God is nothing but a blasphemy. Therefore, the passage gives a clear indication of Jesus' claiming for Himself a divine authority.

One may ask, "but does God oppose God?", for Jesus clearly overrules the Scriptural precepts. Not of course, but God apportions commandments with a consideration of the condition of the listeners' abilities, measuring the commandment as optimal to this condition. In theology this divine consideration, measurement and apportioning is called "economy" (οἰκονομία). Thus, "eye for eye, tooth for tooth" is God's commandment, but the same God made it obsolete after coming to earth in human flesh to teach people the perfect gospel, that they may become as perfect as their Heavenly Father who has sent Him to them.

Top answer
1 of 2
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"You have heard that it was said" is a line Jesus used to repeat what the illiterate masses (as he was speaking to) were taught by the "teachers of the law. It occurs a number of times such as Matt 5:21, 27, 31, 33, 38, 43, etc.

Note especially that it occurs in a modified form twice as "you have heard that it was said to the ancients" suggesting that Jesus is repeating what the scribes and pharisees taught and then goes on to contrast with what He (Jesus) is about to teach.

Therefore, we should not be surprised that some extra "pharisaic" (extra-biblical) teaching had crept into their ideas which Jesus was always trying to dispel as recorded in later sermons.

So, it is true that "hate your enemies" is not in the OT as a moral teaching - it was propagated by the scribes and pharisees as their means of promoting Jewish superiority and spiritual smugness.

This is also confirmed by Matthew's oft-repeated phrase, "as it is written" referring specifically to what is recorded in the OT. That is, "you have heard it said" is what the teachers teach as distinct from what is written in the Bible.

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The phrase "you have heard" does not refer to the scripture, it refers to oral teachings of the Pharisees who violated scripture with their own tradition, as per Matt 15.3:

But he [Jesus] answered and said unto them, Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God by your tradition?"

Cursing enemies was a regular part of that Pharisaic tradition as well as traditional teachings in other sects.

  • In the Amida prayer discovered in the genizah of the Ben Ezra Synagogue in Cairo[1], an entire section was devoted to cursing enemies. This prayer was said three times each day, four times on the Sabbath, and five times on High Holy days. Here, they curse Christians (Natzarim), The Roman Empire, and what are believed to be Sadducees as enemies:

For the apostates let there be no hope,

למשומדים אל תהי תקוה

and may the kingdom of the arrogant

ומלכות זדון

be quickly uprooted in our days;

מהרה תעקר בימינו

and may the natzarim and minim

והנצרים והמינים

instantly perish;

כרגע יאבדו

may they be blotted from the book of the living,

ימחו מספר החיים

and may they not be written with the righteous.

ועם צדיקים אל יכתבו

Blessed are you Lord,

ברוך אתה יי

humbler of the arrogant.

מכניע זדים

  • The Qumram communities required hatred of their enemies as part of the rules of the order[2]:

(4) that he has chosen and hate all that he has rejected; that they may abstain from all evil [...]

(10) according to his lot in God’s design, and hate all the Sons of Darkness, each according to his guilt (11) in God’s vengeance. All those who freely devote themselves to his truth shall bring all their knowledge, powers,

(21) from all injustice. These are the rules of conduct for the Maskil in those times with respect to his loving and hating everlasting hatred (22) toward the men of the pit in a spirit of secrecy. He shall leave to them wealth and earnings like a slave to his lord and like a poor man to

Part of the reason for this may have been the tradition of both blessing and curses on mount Ebal/Gerizim (Deut 11.26), but whatever the historical reason, to a pharisee curses and blessings were the flip side of the same coin. They blessed their friends and cursed their enemies in the same breath and as part of the same prayer.


  1. David Instone-Brewer, Prayer and Agriculture, vol. 1, Traditions of the Rabbis from the Era of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI; Cambridge, UK: William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, 2004), 97–101

  2. Alex P. Jassen, “Rule of the Community,” in Outside the Bible: Ancient Jewish Writings Related to Scripture: Translation, ed. Louis H. Feldman, James L. Kugel, and Lawrence H. Schiffman, vol. 3 (Philadelphia: The Jewish Publication Society, 2013), 2929.

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Bibletruths
bibletruths.net › archives › BTAR369.htm
"But I Say Unto You"
Rather than challenging what the Law actually taught, Jesus is refuting what they said the Law taught (see the expression, "…ye have heard it was said by them of old time…," not, "…you have read" or, "it is written," Matt. 5: 21, 27, 31 33, 38, 43, cp. Matt. 4: 4, 7, 10).
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Quora
discussingjesus.quora.com › In-the-Bible-what-is-the-meaning-and-difference-of-is-written-and-you-have-heard-it-said-Can-you-provide-examples
In the Bible, what is the meaning and difference of 'is written', and 'you have heard it said'? Can you provide examples? - Discussing Jesus - Quora
Answer (1 of 2): Consider this, in biblical times. Gods written word was not easily accessible. It was written on long scrolls, so most common people didn't have them. So for these people, they would have gone to the synagogues and “heard" the word of God. Where as a more affluent person ...
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Walking With Giants
walkingwithgiants.net › bible › inspiration › matthew-521f-did-jesus-reject-the-old-testament
Matthew 5:21f – “You have heard it said…but I say to you” – Walking With Giants
It is thought by some that when he declares, “It was said” (rather that “It was written”) that he is referring not so much to the words of Scripture themselves, but to the ways they have been misquoted or misinterpreted or misapplied by the Jewish teachers of the day.
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Bryan Hodge
bryanhodge.net › 2014 › 03 › 31 › you-have-heard-but-i-say
You Have Heard… But I Say | Bryan Hodge
February 17, 2016 - It is worth noticing that Jesus did not say “It is written” (e.g. Matthew 4:4, 7, 10; Luke 24:46) nor did he say, “the scriptures” say (e.g. Matthew 21:42; 22:29; Luke 24:27), nor does he say “Moses” said (e.g. Mark 1:44; 7:10; 12:26; John 5:46; 7:19). Instead, He says “you have heard that it was said…”
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eBible
ebible.org › engerv › MAT05.htm
Easy-to-Read Version Matthew 5
38 “You have heard that it was said, ‘An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth.’✡ Quote from Exodus 21:24; Leviticus 24:20. 39 But I tell you, don’t fight back against someone who wants to do harm to you. If they hit you on the right cheek, let them hit the other cheek too.
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GotQuestions
gotquestions.org › Jesus-and-the-Law.html
Did Jesus contradict the Law in Matthew 5:21-22? | GotQuestions.org
January 21, 2026 - . .” and follows it up with “But I tell you. . . .” Using the formula, Jesus creates a contrast between the Law of Moses (as interpreted by the Pharisees and scribes) and His own command.
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Bible Hub
biblehub.com › kjv › matthew › 5-27.htm
Matthew 5:27 KJV: Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
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YouVersion
bible.com › bible › 1 › MAT.5.38-48.KJV
Matthew 5:38-48 KJV
Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth: but I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.
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Bible Study Tools
biblestudytools.com › matthew › 5-21.html
Matthew 5:21 - “You have heard that it was said to the people lon... | Bible Study Tools
Matthew 5:21 “You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘You shall not murder,and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment.’... Read verse in New International Version
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Quora
quora.com › In-Matthew-5-at-verse-21-a-number-of-sayings-start-with-the-phrase-“You-have-heard-it-said-that-”-Why-does-Jesus-use-this-phrasing-to-make-a-point
In Matthew 5, at verse 21, a number of sayings start with the phrase, “You have heard it said that…”. Why does Jesus use this phrasing to make a point? - Quora
Answer (1 of 6): He was making a distinction between what the corrupt priests and religious leaders SAID the (Old) Law was… versus what the (Old) Law actually said. The people themselves were supposed read the Law themselves… even delight in it (Deuteronomy 17:8, 9; Joshua 1:8; Psalm 1:2). ...
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Unity
unity.org › en › bible-interpretations › matthew-527-28-you-have-heard-it-said-i-say-you
Matthew 5:27-28 "You have heard it said ... but I say to you ..." | Unity
The passage you are asking about—Matthew 5: 27-28—is a part of Jesus' Sermon on the Mount, and one in a series of examples he uses to emphasize the new dimension of spiritual awareness he is teaching and demonstrating: "You have heard it said 'You shall not commit adultery.'
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Compassionatechristianity
compassionatechristianity.org › you-have-heard-it-said
You have heard it said | Compassionate Christianity
For instance, Jesus says, “You have heard it said An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth”, a command given in the Book of Leviticus 24:19-21. But then Jesus declares, “But I say to you, if someone strikes you, turn the other cheek.” · No matter what way you look at that, “an eye ...
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YouVersion
bible.com › bible › 314 › MAT.5.21-32.TLV
Matthew 5:21-32 (TLV) - “You have heard it was said to thos
“You have heard it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not murder, and whoever commits murder shall be subject to judgment.’ But I tell you that everyone who is angry with his brother shall be subject to judgment.