This is something that has always confused me so I wanted to ask.
I was taught that Palestine as a name originated following the Roman conquest and subsequent Jewish expulsion. So I was a bit confused when I saw the region name wasn’t Canaan as I thought that was the contemporary.
Is Palestine an older name, or was there simply not a contemporary name for the general area that was more geographically appropriate.
Not trying to start anything related to the current conflict I swear, I’m just curious.
After the Ottoman Empire collapsed and lost the territory to the British, the British chose the name “Palestine” following Christian European tradition, not an Ottoman designation. Moreover, the Arabic name "Philistin" is a transliteration of "Palestine" that reflects that there is no consonant 'p' nor vocal 'e' (as it sounds in the first 'e' in Palestine) in the Arabic alphabet.
The Roman empire introduced the name by renaming Judea to Palestine as punishment after a failed Jewish rebellion, based on the name of a biblical/historical enemy of the Jews, the philistines. There are plenty of biblical stories about them, including David and Goliath as well as Samson and Dalila. The name was popularized in Europe through the Christian tradition, Christianity being a remnant of the Roman empire.
The irony is that the name of the Philistines, from which Palestine is derived, most likely comes from an Hebrew word that means 'invader'. In Hebrew they are called Pelishtim פלשתים and the land is known as Peleshet פלשת. These words come from the root פלש palash - which in Modern Hebrew means "to invade" as the Philistines were considered to be invading sea-peoples (in both Biblical tradition as well as according historical scholarship). This being one of those frequent cases where the name of a people was given to them by others (an exonym).
EDIT:
additions from the comments:
The Romans were the first to use the name to designate the whole region but previously the Greeks used a similar name derived from the philistines to designate a sub-region located roughly were northern Gaza is now. It is possible the Roman designation was based on the Greek name rather than the philistines name directly.
There are other theories for the origin of the name for the philistines.
An interesting point is that it's possible that the modern Hebrew word for 'invader' comes from the name of the Philistines rather than the other way around.
The Arabic district named after "Falastin" was a direct continuation of a Byzantine administrative unit by the same name and that roughly corresponded to the same area. It is possible the name is a transcription of how the locals described the place by word-of-mouth.
The word 'Hebrew' itself may have had its origin in an Hebrew word meaning 'to cross over' referring to nomad or migrating people.
Regardless of the veracity of the biblical stories, there is plenty of archeological evidence and scholarly work confirming the existence of the Philistines as sea people who controlled several cities in a coastal enclave extending south and north of the current israel-Gaza northern border.
So this is a myth, widely spread by people like Ben Shapiro and others, as fact.
That the term "Palestine" was created by the Romans after Jewish Revolt in 66-70 CE, as an attempt to "shame the Jews".
It will come as no surprise to most of you, that this is not true and completely ahistorical.
I read a great piece by Deborah Maccoby, an esteemed Jewish historian from Oxford University, who completely debunks Benny boy's nonsense with shock actual facts.
It is quite lengthy, and if you want to read it, you can find it here:
https://normanfinkelstein.substack.com/p/biblical-brainiac-ben-shapiro-exposes
If you want the important points:
-
Palestine was used to refer to the land as a whole from as early as 500 BCE. The Romans only gave official expression to a term that had been used for centuries.
-
The political, territorial title “Israel” (as distinct from the religious concept of Eretz Israel) has only ever been used for a) the ancient Northern Kingdom of Israel, which is thought to have lasted about 200 years, from the tenth to the eighth century BCE; b) the modern State of Israel, which was founded in 1948 and, according to international law, is confined to the pre-1967 borders.
-
Ancient historians, like Herodotus, had used the term "Palestine" to refer to the whole area as early as the fifth century BCE. It was referred to as "Palestine" even by first century CE Jewish historians like Philo and Josephus.
So what is "Eretz Israel" that the more fundamentalists elements of Israeli society, namely the settlers and the government, refer to?
Well according to Genesis 15: 18: “The Lord made a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates”.
That is, the river Nile to the river Euphrates, Egypt to Iraq. I wonder why the fundamentalists who claim "God gave us this land" forget to mention God also promised them other land, including Egypt, Jordan and Iraq?
I'll tell you an interesting facts about the name "Palestine." Warning: It's as interesting as it is shocking, but facts are facts and there's no other way around it. If you don't like it, you just have to put up with it. Let's start with the movie...
The map calls what is now Israel "Palestine" because Raiders of the Lost Ark takes place in 1936, and at that time, the region was a British colony called the British Mandate of Palestine. So the movie is historically accurate.
Now take note: the name Palestine was not given because there was a Palestinian nation, a Palestinian country, or a Palestinian people "sovereign in their own land." It was called that BECAUSE IT WAS A COLONY. THE BRITISH gave it that name.
But then WHAT WAS IT CALLED BEFORE? You may be surprised, but it was NOT called Palestine. In fact, it did not exist as a province. The area was divided into small provinces, some governed from Beirut, others from Damascus.
There it is called Palestine, but only because the map is from an English book. The Ottomans (who ruled the region at the time) did not call it that. In fact, NO Islamic domain called it Palestine in the sense of a country, province or nation.
For Muslims, Filastín was only a regional name that served as an alternative to the "Holy Land." Why? Because that was the name given to it by the Romans before the Arab conquest. That is why Muslims were never interested in the name.
Technically, the region was always seen by Islam as a mere extension of Sham (Syria), although for administrative reasons the coastal regions were governed from Beirut. For Islam there NEVER existed a country called Palestine with a people called Palestinians.
The first Muslims who began to speak of Palestine in official terms were the Ottomans, right in the middle of the 19th century. But look at the reasons for this: at that time, the English presence had increased significantly in the region.
Political crises in the area during the 1830s put the Ottoman authorities at risk. Mehmet Ali, the governor of Egypt, took control of the region and had serious plans to attack Istanbul. He might have succeeded, but the English intervened.
Unable to confront the British army after a fierce bombardment of Beirut, Ali returned to Cairo, and the Ottomans regained control of the area. Ties with England were thus strengthened, and the British consulate was then granted several privileges.
One of them was that all Europeans residing in the "Holy Land" were placed under British jurisdiction. Most Jews benefited from this same provision. Thus, although they lived in Ottoman territory, they were governed by English laws.
This legal curiosity - British jurisdiction in Ottoman territory - was what the Ottomans themselves called Palestine. That is, they themselves understood the concept of "Palestine" to be something shared by Christians and Jews, but alien to Islam.
Why? Simple: because in the sacred narrative of Islam, Palestine has no importance. The only place that stands out is Jerusalem, called Al-Quds (The Holy). But this special status is limited to the city and its surroundings, not to the entire territory.
However, in Jewish and Christian religious narratives, the regions of Judea, Samaria and Galilee have a capital importance because they are where the history of ancient Israel takes place, or where Jesus of Nazareth walked.
In 135, Emperor Hadrian ordered a name change and these three provinces were renamed Palestine. But it was just that: a name change. Conceptually, the idea was not altered for either Jews or Christians.
In the 19th century, when a Jew or a Christian spoke of Palestine, he understood the concept perfectly. Muslims did not. For them, the name was only an anachronistic geographical reference, foreign to their religion.
Now, if Muslims did not imagine the existence of Palestine as something concrete, EVEN LESS so did they imagine the existence of a "Palestinian people" as something equally concrete. The inhabitants there were simply Arabs or Shamis Muslims. That is, Syrians.
So much so that even in the 20th century, Haffez el-Assad, the Syrian dictator (father of Bashar el-Assad) insisted that Israel had to be destroyed, and the territory incorporated into Syria, because "THAT HAD BEEN THE WAY IT HAD BEEN THROUGHOUT HISTORY".
So do not be fooled, readers of good will. When pro-Palestinians present you with "evidence" that this place was once called Palestine, remind them that this only happened after 1834, and it was thanks to the British and the Jews.
(Saw this posted on social media elsewhere, and I thought it would be discussion-worthy here.)
What if the Romans hadn't renamed Judea to "Palestine", after putting down the Jewish Revolt?
Everything else being the same, but the region retaining the name "Judea", would local Arabs call themselves "Judeans" & claim that Jews invaded Judea?
Please be advised: This content forms a segment of the "What Every Palestinian Should Know" series, presented by Handala on Palestine Today.
You are probably talking about this claim:
Zionists claim that the name Palestine originated with the Romans, and came into existence as a punishment by the Romans against the Jewish people.
This is one of the wild and unsubstantiated claims and arguments from advocates of Israel.
It is quite interesting how selective people can be when they read history. They often learn just enough to support their world view, separating it completely from any historical context or the larger picture of the region. I do not know where this talking point comes from, or who popularized it, but it is simply incorrect, and frankly quite comical in how lazy it is. Without exaggeration, this talking point could be debunked with a 10 second google search, that’s how easily disproven it is. However, even the crudest of propaganda can be useful as a teaching tool. Keep in mind, of course, that when it comes to history there is a wealth of details and nuances involved which keep it from being a simplistic black and white affair, that’s why ethno-nationalists with their dualistic worldviews tend to have terrible historical literacy.
The very first traces of the name Palestine come from the time of Ramses II and III, roughly around the mid-12th century BC. There is an inscription dated to around 1150 BC at the Medinet Habu temple in Luxor which refers to the Peleset (PLST) among those who fought against Ramses III. Today we know the Peleset as the Philistines.
A people called Peleset. From a graphic wall relief on the Second Pylon at Medinet Habu, c. 1150 BC, during the reign of Ramesses III.Interestingly enough, it was long thought that the Philistines were sea-faring marauders, possibly Aegean in origin who invaded the Levant. This would neatly tie them into the Biblical narrative. However, there has been mounting evidence to suggest that the Philistines were actually an indigenous population originating in the region. According to advocates of this relatively new approach to the origins of the Philistines, the evidence has always been there, but in their haste to match archaeological evidence to the Biblical narrative many historians and archaeologists overlooked certain inconsistencies and contradictory evidence. You will find that much of the history of Palestine falls into this same trap, and many of the myths regarding Palestine today emanate from trying to force a Biblical narrative onto history with little -if any- corroborating evidence.
Regardless of their origins, their name came to be associated with the area, not only in ancient Egyptian inscriptions, but also in ancient Assyrian inscriptions. For example, various Assyrian inscriptions from the 8th and 7th century BC refer to the area as “Palashtu”. This is the result of the Philistines’ influence and their intermingling and integration with the various peoples inhabiting the Levant. Prior to this, the area was more commonly known as Djahi, Retenu or Canaan, but beginning from the late Bronze age onwards, and as a result of said Philistine influence, the term Palashtu or Palestine came to replace them.
"In the fifth year (of my official rule) I sat down solemnly on my royal throne and called up the country (for war). I ordered the numerous army of Assyria to march against Palestine "In the fifth year (of my official rule) I sat down solemnly on my royal throne and called up the country (for war). I ordered the numerous army of Assyria to march against Palestine (Pa-la-áš-tu)... I received all the tributes […] which they brought to Assyria. I (then) ordered [to march] against the country Damascus (Ša-imērišu).
-Adad-nirari III. An Assyrian king c. 800 BC*.*
"Bring down lumber, do your work on it, (but) do not deliver it to the Egyptians (mu-sur-a-a) or Palestinians (pa-la-as-ta-a-a), or I shall not let you go up to the mountains."
-Qurdi-Ashur-lamur( a ruler of Assyria) to Tiglath-Pileser III( a prominent king of Assyria) , Nimrud Letter ND 2715. c. 735 BC.
According to Nur Masalha, Philistines influence can still be felt today:
“..almost all the toponyms of the cities of Philistia: Gaza (Ghazzah), Askelon (‘Asqalan), Ashdod (Isdud), Tantur (Tantura), Gath (Jat), Ekron (‘Aqir) survived into the modern era and were preserved in the modern Palestinian Arabic names and were mostly depopulated by Israel in 1948.“
It was during Classical Antiquity and the Hellenistic period (~500-135 BC) that the name “Palestine” as we know it today took form. The use of the terms Palaistine or Phalastin were widespread in the literature of the period. Philosophers and scientists such as Ptolemy and Aristotle spoke of Palaistine, and Herodotus’ Histories commonly used the name Palestine.
Herodotus, Histories Book II Palestine in c.450 BC according to Herodotus (map as reconstructed by J. Murray, 1897)In these writings, the use of the name Palaistine did not refer solely to the areas ruled by the Philistines at one point or another, but to wider swaths of the region, in some cases even stretching as far as what we would today call Jordan.
The name Palestine is the most commonly used from the Late Bronze Age (from 1300 BC) onwards. The name is evident in countless histories,‘ Abbasid inscriptions from the province of Jund Filastin, Islamic numismatic evidence maps (including ‘world maps' beginning with Classical Antiquity) and Philistine coins from the Iron Age and Antiquity, vast quantities of Umayyad and Abbasid Palestine coins bearing the mint name of Filastin. The manuscripts of medieval al‑Fustat (old Cairo) Genizah also referred to the Arab Muslim province of Filastin. From the Late Bronze Age onwards, the names used for the region, such as Djahi, Retenu and Cana’an, all gave way to the name Palestine. Throughout Classical and Late Antiquity, the name Palestine remained the most common. Furthermore, in the course of the Roman, Byzantine and Islamic periods the conception and political geography of Palestine acquired official administrative status.
Philistian coin struck in Gaza 4th century BC. reflecting some of local tradition, Arab camel and Arab rider right hand, bow; in left hand, arrow. ΠΑΛΑΙϹΤΙΝΗϹ Palaestina. In Arabic: Ilya (Jerusalem) - Filastin , minted in Filastin in 690s AD, Umayyad period, this fals is 2.85 g.Map is from Tuhfetü’l-Kibâr Fî Esfâri’l-Bihâr, which was written by Kâtib Çelebi. The book is on the Ottoman naval wars until 1656*. Cities environs the Mediterranean and the Black Sea are mapped in the book. On the bottom right corner the word “Land of* Falastin*”, ”*Quds Sharif”, “Gaza”, “Yafa” are mentioned.
There are many more examples of the usage of the term or its cognates, and it is not the intention of this answer to delve too deeply into the history of these uses. However, if you find the history of the name interesting then the further reading section has some recommendations that you might find to your liking. Regardless, it is quite clear that this name originated well before the Romans or their conquest of Palestine.
As with all propaganda, conveying historical or factual accuracy is not the intended goal. These claims serve mainly to demonize Palestinians and frame them as usurpers to the land, and attempt to tie them to the Roman persecution of the Jewish people. This is purely ideologically motivated with no basis in reality or history, and its widespread use speaks to the prevalence of blind regurgitation of talking points in Zionist circles without any kind of evidence or historical knowledge.
But think about this for a moment: If such a basic falsity which could be debunked with a 10 second google search is so widespread and internalized among defenders of Israel, can you imagine all the other, more complicated falsities that form the basis of their talking points?
Sadly, this animates much of the mainstream debate on Palestine, and we Palestinians must constantly and consistently re-litigate false claims we had debunked decades ago to no avail. It is my hope that one day we Palestinians will not have to fight these battles anymore, and the region can recover its hijacked history.
Further reading:
-
Masalha, Nur. Palestine: A Four Thousand Year History**. Zed Books Ltd., 2018.**
-
El-Haj, Nadia Abu. Facts on the ground: Archaeological practice and territorial self-fashioning in Israeli society. University of Chicago Press, 2008.
-
Hjelm, Ingrid, et al., eds. A New Critical Approach to the History of Palestine: Palestine History and Heritage Project 1. Routledge, 2019.
-
Ben‐Dor Evian, Shirly. “Ramesses III and the ‘Sea‐peoples’: Towards a New Philistine Paradigm.” Oxford Journal of Archaeology 36.3, 2017: 267-285.
-
Bowersock, Glen W. “Palestine: ancient history and modern politics.” Journal of Palestine Studies 14.4, 1985: 49-57.
-
Gitler & Tal 2006 / The Coinage of Philistia of the Fifth and Fourth Centuries BC: A Study of the Earliest Coins of Palestine AND More Evidence on the Collective Mint of Philistia. and, -GREEK COINAGES OF PALESTINE, Oren Tal.
I'm not trying to stir the pot. I'm actually seeking some sanity in the current state of things. I feel like with everything that's going on, a solid historical background is absolutely vital.
Of course I'm seeking this information to better understand modern political claims, but I hope we can keep the discussion civil and mostly non-political and concentrate on the ancient sources and modern scholarship. Obviously, if people can't do that then the mods should respond appropriately.
I've read a fair few chunks of Josephus, but mainly from a theological perspective, and a lot happened in Roman Judea long after he was writing. What are some later ancient sources?
And what is some good modern scholarship on the subject? Obviously I would prefer sources that neutrally address the classical and post-classical Roman history of the region, but if there are some politically biased sources that make interesting and reasoned arguments then that's not a bad thing either.
At the risk of getting too political, I'll be more specific. The establishment of the modern state of Israel is based on a historical (and Biblical) claim. There are also various population claims regarding Jews in the Levant up till the Arab conquest, some quite contradictory. Do we have any sources demonstrating a decline in the Jewish population as a percentage in this region during Roman rule?
What, if anything, did the Romans contribute to the existence of a diaspora? From what I have so far read, and this is not enough for me to form an opinion, Roman expulsions of the Jews from Judea/Palaestina were either non-existent or minor. Again, that's not an opinion, and I'd love to be pointed in the direction of further sources.
My understanding is that after the Romans conquered the land in 70 CE, they renamed it Syria-Palestinia to invoke the Philistines (Plishtim in Hebrew), the perennial biblical enemies of the Jews. The Philistines killed tens of thousands of Jews and fought 7 wars to conquer the land but they were outlasted by the Jews. The Roman exile was the fulfillment of the Philistine goals.
The root verb of “Plishtim” in Hebrew is ‘pa•lash,’ which means ‘invader,’ intruder’ and ‘trespasser.’
Maybe this is why there is no “P” sound in Arabic?
It’s kind of wild that people call Jews “colonizers” in a land renamed Palestine, a word that literally comes from the Hebrew P’lishtim, meaning invaders.
Not a tribe name. Not an identity. Just what the Israelites called a foreign people who showed up on ships and took land. Their real identity? Still unknown. The name just means those who invaded us.
They weren’t local. They weren’t Canaanite. They weren’t part of the land. They arrived from the sea, likely from the Aegean, and settled along the coastal strip. The Israelites, who had their roots in the land for generations, saw them as a threat and called them what they were: invaders.
Centuries later, Rome crushed a Jewish revolt, one of the last desperate attempts of an indigenous people to reclaim their homeland. In response, they renamed Judea as Syria Palaestina to erase Jewish roots. And what name did they choose? The name of Israel’s ancient enemies. The name that literally meant invaders. The irony is staggering.
Now fast forward to today. People use the name Palestine, born out of a Roman erasure campaign and built on a misunderstood Hebrew insult, to claim that Jews have no indigenous connection to the land they come from. That the people who named their enemies invaders are somehow the invaders themselves.
History didn’t just get rewritten. It got flipped on its head.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bar_Kokhba_revolt
I keep bumping into a strange discrepancy among academics I am reading or listening to as relates to the historical name of modern day Israel and surrounding areas. Some say “1st century Palestine”, while others say “Judea”. Is there a consensus around what is the appropriate term for the area? Is this difference due to academic training and background or a political statement?
-
Jews Lived in the Land Long Before “Palestinians” Existed
-The Jewish presence in Israel dates back over 3,000 years, with the Kingdoms of Israel and Judea existing as early as 1200 BCE.
-Historically, religiously, and archaeologically, the Jewish connection to the land is undeniable.
-Arabs and Islam only arrived in the 7th century CE nearly 2,000 years after Jews were already there.
2. Rome Invented “Palestina” to Erase Jewish Identity
-In 135 CE, after the Jewish Bar Kokhba Revolt, the Romans renamed Judea to Syria Palaestina to erase Jewish history.
-The name “Palestine” comes from the Philistines, a Greek seafaring group that disappeared centuries before Arabs arrived.
-Despite centuries of foreign rule (Romans, Byzantines, Arabs, Crusaders, Ottomans, and the British), Jews never left.
-Jewish communities continuously lived in Jerusalem, Tiberias, Hebron, and Safed.
3. “Palestinian” Identity Is a Recent Political Invention
-Until the 20th century, “Palestinian” referred to everyone in the region, including Jews.
-There was never a country called “Palestine.” No distinct Palestinian culture, no historical Palestinian leaders before the mid-1900s. • Even Arab leaders admitted this: • Zuheir Mohsen (PLO leader, 1977): “The Palestinian people does not exist… It is merely a tactical means to continue our struggle against Israel.”
-Ahmed Shuqeiri (Founder of the PLO, 1956): “There is no such thing as Palestine in history.”
4. Jerusalem Has No Religious Significance in Islam
-Jerusalem is mentioned 700 times in the Jewish Bible.
-Jerusalem is NEVER mentioned in the Quran. Not even once.
-The Islamic claim to Jerusalem is based on a vague reference to “the farthest mosque” (Al-Aqsa), which wasn’t even built until decades after Muhammad’s death.
-For 1,300 years under Muslim rule, Jerusalem was a neglected, never a capital of any Arab or Muslim state.
The Facts Speak for Themselves
Jews are the indigenous people of the land. Their presence predates Rome, Islam, and any Arab claim.
Palestinians” are a modern political creation, their identity only emerging after Israel’s founding to delegitimize Jewish sovereignty.
Jerusalem has always been the heart of Jewish life, it was never an Arab or Muslim capital.
The lie of “Palestine” is a recent invention. The Jewish connection to the land is ancient, undeniable, and unbroken.
I found a rendition of the Palestinian flag in this encyclopedia and I can’t seem to find any information about it online. Does anyone have any further information or research? Obviously, flag design CAN change quite drastically but I can’t understand why this version would be so vastly different from other renditions, as well as other middle eastern flags. Any chance it’s a misprint?
(If I remember correctly, the copyright date was 1999)
This has nothing to do with the war in the Middle East just wondering why a country that despise jaw named themselves after a Jewish country.
Excuse my broken ass English lol
I was just curious cause I’m an Indian American who happens to speak Hindi, and I found out that they refer Philistine in the Bible(what I know as the Hindi term for Palestine).
r/Israel said there was no connection whatsoever though?
Sorry just curious about what’s up with these words, could someone please explain?
Edit: there is no country, as people of this subreddit know it, called Isreal.