The text in question makes no mention of anyone called Jesus.
The angel Gabriel is speaking to Zacharias, telling him that his aged wife Elizabeth will give birth to a son who will be called John. Gabriel specifically speaks of the baby yet to be conceived as destined in the will of God to “be great in the sight of the Lord”. This is the Greek word kyrios, but context is totally unambiguous that this Lord is the Lord God of Israel. John will be great in the sight of Israel’s Lord and God.
Gabriel continues to say that John will be filled with the Holy Spirit of God, even from his mother’s womb, and that he shall turn many in Israel to their God the Lord.
It is not until Elizabeth is six months pregnant that Gabriel speaks again in the written record, being sent to the virgin Mary, and this is the first time the name ‘Jesus’ is spoken by him. This is in verse 31 of that same first chapter of Luke, when he tells Mary that the Holy One to be born will be called Jesus, and also be called the Son of the Highest.
Jesus is described as coming for the first time in Hebrews 9:26 – and Gabriel appropriately only names the one whom John the Baptist was to prepare the way for at the announcement of Mary’s miraculous conception of this Jesus. It is significant that Jesus himself, as an adult, said that John the Baptist was the fulfilment of the prophecy about the Elijah to come (Matthew 11:14 & 17:12 cf. Malachi 4:5). This is where the penny should drop. Malachi foretold one coming to do a work of preparation for the Lord God of Israel. Jesus showed that John the Baptist, who prepared the way before him, was the fulfilment of that prophecy. John the Baptist himself agreed with that – John 1:19-27 – saying he was preparing the way for the Lord, the Lord who came after him, whose laces he was not worthy to untie.
To answer the question then: The significance of what Gabriel said in Luke 1:15-17a was fully known to him, without him ever mentioning Jesus. When he did mention the coming of Jesus, many months later, he also knew then how John would fulfil the prophecies, but he did not spell that out. It was Zacharias who, in the second text of the question, gave the meaning, saying of his son, “And thou, child, shalt be called the prophet of the Highest: for thou shalt go before the face of the Lord to prepare his ways” (Luke 1:76 KJV). Gabriel said in Luke 1:31 that Jesus would also be “called the Son of the Highest”.
Gabriel understood that John was the prophet of the Highest (the Lord God of Israel), and that Jesus, being Son of the Highest, would have John prepare his way for him.
Jesus himself explained the significance of John, who went before him to prepare people for the Messiah, also called kyrios. It is for those who have been prepared for Messiah, and who have received him as their Saviour and their Lord, to let the scriptures speak to them by the teaching of the Holy Spirit. John turned many in Israel to their God the Lord by turning them to Jesus Christ as their Saviour and their Lord. The one whom the 'children of Israel' followed prior to the coming of Jesus into the world was, indeed, this Lord God of Israel. To turn to the Lord Jesus in the way Gabriel said is to turn to the Lord God of Israel.
Answer from Anne on Stack ExchangeWhat message did Gabriel deliver to Zechariah?
What is Gabriel’s role in Islamic theology?
What role does Gabriel play as a messenger of God?
The text in question makes no mention of anyone called Jesus.
The angel Gabriel is speaking to Zacharias, telling him that his aged wife Elizabeth will give birth to a son who will be called John. Gabriel specifically speaks of the baby yet to be conceived as destined in the will of God to “be great in the sight of the Lord”. This is the Greek word kyrios, but context is totally unambiguous that this Lord is the Lord God of Israel. John will be great in the sight of Israel’s Lord and God.
Gabriel continues to say that John will be filled with the Holy Spirit of God, even from his mother’s womb, and that he shall turn many in Israel to their God the Lord.
It is not until Elizabeth is six months pregnant that Gabriel speaks again in the written record, being sent to the virgin Mary, and this is the first time the name ‘Jesus’ is spoken by him. This is in verse 31 of that same first chapter of Luke, when he tells Mary that the Holy One to be born will be called Jesus, and also be called the Son of the Highest.
Jesus is described as coming for the first time in Hebrews 9:26 – and Gabriel appropriately only names the one whom John the Baptist was to prepare the way for at the announcement of Mary’s miraculous conception of this Jesus. It is significant that Jesus himself, as an adult, said that John the Baptist was the fulfilment of the prophecy about the Elijah to come (Matthew 11:14 & 17:12 cf. Malachi 4:5). This is where the penny should drop. Malachi foretold one coming to do a work of preparation for the Lord God of Israel. Jesus showed that John the Baptist, who prepared the way before him, was the fulfilment of that prophecy. John the Baptist himself agreed with that – John 1:19-27 – saying he was preparing the way for the Lord, the Lord who came after him, whose laces he was not worthy to untie.
To answer the question then: The significance of what Gabriel said in Luke 1:15-17a was fully known to him, without him ever mentioning Jesus. When he did mention the coming of Jesus, many months later, he also knew then how John would fulfil the prophecies, but he did not spell that out. It was Zacharias who, in the second text of the question, gave the meaning, saying of his son, “And thou, child, shalt be called the prophet of the Highest: for thou shalt go before the face of the Lord to prepare his ways” (Luke 1:76 KJV). Gabriel said in Luke 1:31 that Jesus would also be “called the Son of the Highest”.
Gabriel understood that John was the prophet of the Highest (the Lord God of Israel), and that Jesus, being Son of the Highest, would have John prepare his way for him.
Jesus himself explained the significance of John, who went before him to prepare people for the Messiah, also called kyrios. It is for those who have been prepared for Messiah, and who have received him as their Saviour and their Lord, to let the scriptures speak to them by the teaching of the Holy Spirit. John turned many in Israel to their God the Lord by turning them to Jesus Christ as their Saviour and their Lord. The one whom the 'children of Israel' followed prior to the coming of Jesus into the world was, indeed, this Lord God of Israel. To turn to the Lord Jesus in the way Gabriel said is to turn to the Lord God of Israel.
First, "Lord and God" does not appear in the passages nominated by the OP.
Second, based on the words of Gabriel ALONE, one cannot determine whether Gabriel is referring to Jesus as God because Gabriel uses the phrase, "the Lord their God" (Luke 1:16).
Now, "Lord" (κύριος) can refer to either:
- God the Father as per Matt 11:25, Luke 10:21, 1:68, Mark 12:29, Rev 11:17, Luke 20:37, etc
- Jesus Christ as per, Rom 7:25, Acts 11:17, 1 Peter 1:3, 2 Cor 11:31, 1 Cor 1:9, etc.
Thus, the fact that "Lord" can refer to God the Father, means that Gabriel's words in Luke 1:16 could be referring to God the Father as Lord. Equally, if one believes in the divinity of Christ, then "the Lord our God" could also refer to Jesus Christ.
The decision between these two alternatives must be made on the basis of other information, especially (in this case) what the original prophecy in Mal 3:1-5 is referencing. However, this aspect is specifically excluded from the OP's question scope and will not be discussed here.